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The OED thinks different: ¨†muse XV; †wander aimlessly XVII; walk leisurely, stroll XVIII. of uncert. orig.¨In the Middle Ages, when many ordinary people throughout Europe would set off on pilgrimages to the Holy Land, people in the villages through which they passed asked would naturally ask them where they were going. The reply would come: “A la Sainte Terre,” – to the Holy Land. And so they became known as sainte-terre-ers or saunterers. To go on pilgrimage is to become a saunterer.
It is doubtful whether the word represented by the quots. under sense 1 is identical with the modern word It wouldn´t be the first time a word in the English language has drastically changed its meaning.So there were possibly two words very similar in form but different in meaning ?
Or the supposed derivation from Saint is extant but unprovable ?
Me, too!It is doubtful whether the word represented by the quots. under sense 1 is identical with the modern word It wouldn´t be the first time a word in the English language has drastically changed its meaning.
I think the supposed derivation is highly improbable. It relies on the assumption that ´idle persons etc...´ went about rural England muttering excuses about what they were up to in French. All kinds of things are unprovable, more to the point is whether they are credible. It´s a nice idea though. I fully intend to saunter a bit on my next camino regardless of where the word comes from.
It's complicated stuff.OTOH - Given that the Norman invasion of 1066 probably brought their language with them (ancient french?), given the long centuries wherein Normandy was considered English territory, and posited that English through the centuries follows other languages down dark alleys and steals their vocabulary, I don't find the potential derivation of saunter to be unrealistic. ;-)
The word "saunter" does NOT paint a pilgrim picture in my mind. Surely a pilgrimage is purposeful, more than it is carefree. My interpretation of "saunter" is a much more casual unburdened stroll, without the focus of a pilgrimage.Each of the words paints a different picture in our minds. Striding is alarmingly purposeful, and perhaps to purposeful for pilgrimages. Walking is a bit bland. Hiking is about self-improvement, but sauntering seems ideal. It has a joyful carefree tone to it. And as it happens, it is THE pilgrimage word.
I simply reported on Dr Ashenden's views --- I suppose that my own most recent extraordinarily lengthy but slow Camino might qualify as a "saunter" in the modern sense, though it's not how I think of it.The word "saunter" does NOT paint a pilgrim picture in my mind. Surely a pilgrimage is purposeful, more than it is carefree. My interpretation of "saunter" is a much more casual unburdened stroll, without the focus of a pilgrimage.
I never saunter into town at the end of a day on the Camino.
From what I've read, I would never describe your Camino as a "saunter"! It is not the speed, but the attitude that is different.I suppose that my own most recent extraordinarily lengthy but slow Camino might qualify as a "saunter" in the modern sense
Exactly. No matter what speed you were going it was hardly sauntering, @JabbaPapa.From what I've read, I would never describe your Camino as a "saunter"! It is not the speed, but the attitude that is different.
I have met with but one or two persons in the course of my life who understood the art of Walking, that is, of taking walks,—who had a genius, so to speak, for sauntering; which word is beautifully derived "from idle people who roved about the country, in the Middle Ages, and asked charity, under pretense of going à la Sainte Terre," to the Holy Land, till the children exclaimed, "There goes a Sainte-Terrer," a Saunterer, a Holy-Lander. They who never go to the Holy Land in their walks, as they pretend, are indeed mere idlers and vagabonds; but they who do go there are saunterers in the good sense, such as I mean. Some, however, would derive the word from sans terre, without land or a home, which, therefore, in the good sense, will mean, having no particular home, but equally at home everywhere. For this is the secret of successful sauntering. He who sits still in a house all the time may be the greatest vagrant of all; but the saunterer, in the good sense, is no more vagrant than the meandering river, which is all the while sedulously seeking the shortest course to the sea. But I prefer the first, which, indeed, is the most probable derivation. For every walk is a sort of crusade, preached by some Peter the Hermit in us, to go forth and reconquer this Holy Land from the hands of the Infidels.
I was reading this piece earlier, and quite like it. I think that this paragraph a little further on is starting to get to the crux of the etymological debate:Saunter also sounds like "sans terre." Without a land / home / fixed abode. Which also fits pilgrimage... Now I see that the question has been debated for a long time! I like the "sainte terre" connection too. Fantastically interesting, thanks JabbaPapa.
"Henry David Thoreau gave his own, elaborated version of the etymology fable in “Walking” in 1862:
and in the context of this discussion:That 18th century etymology proposed by Johnson hasn't been taken seriously for more than 100 years, as far as I can detect. There is no evidence of anything like that in Middle English writings. The retort that "but if no one knows where it comes from, this story could be true" is not the sort of reasoning an intelligent person would offer for spreading a tale.
Something similar might be said of Gavin Ashenden on the subject of pilgrimage and saunterers.Muir and Thoreau weren't advancing a theory about etymology. They were illustrating an attitude about the wilderness from a factoid they had in their heads. The attitude itself is the thing that we should remember and bequeath to the future. But the truth has to be (dis-)entangled from the falsehood which frames it, and which it accidentally legitimizes.
Good point !!Saunter also sounds like "sans terre." Without a land / home / fixed abode. Which also fits pilgrimage...
OED shows that the "sainte terre" one has existed since at least 17th Century, but I think that OED giving "Of obscure origin" doesn't mean none of the proposed origins of the word are taken seriously, it just means there's simply not enough material evidence to properly affirm any of them, and so OED doesn't."That 18th century etymology proposed by Johnson hasn't been taken seriously for more than 100 years, as far as I can detect. There is no evidence of anything like that in Middle English writings. The retort that "but if no one knows where it comes from, this story could be true" is not the sort of reasoning an intelligent person would offer for spreading a tale."
Indeed, but the reasoning of an intelligent person does not include accepting an explanation because it appeals to some romantic notion that the lexicographer might have when the origen is at best murky or there is no evidence at all. That is what is being suggested here, and that the lexicographers who attempted definitions did so without sufficient evidence, arrived at quite contradictory romanticized explanations for the origin of the word saunter, and that more modern thinking on this has essentially rejected the earlier definitions. To put it crudely, the 17th century explanations were bunkum. Romantically appealing to lay-people like John Muir and others, but really of no value etymologically.You didn't write the above, dougfitz, but merely quoted it -- but I'd reply that the reasoning of an intelligent person in the face of an unknown does not involve rejecting this or that explanation of it for mere reasons of personal taste.
My own training in lexicography suggested that where a solid history and etymology could be established, then follow that ; but where none can be, then accept the various theories as positive possibilities.Indeed, but the reasoning of an intelligent person does not include accepting an explanation because it appeals to some romantic notion that the lexicographer might have when the origen is at best murky or there is no evidence at all. That is what is being suggested here, and that the lexicographers who attempted definitions did so without sufficient evidence, arrived at quite contradictory romanticized explanations for the origin of the word saunter, and that more modern thinking on this has essentially rejected the earlier definitions. To put it crudely, the 17th century explanations were bunkum. Romantically appealing to lay-people like John Muir and others, but really of no value etymologically.
Indeed. But this is my problem. It would appear that there is a solid basis for rejecting the 17th century explanations, repeated by Johnston, other lexicographers and other men of letter through to the mid-19th century. Modern sources do not entertain the earlier definitions. My reading of the discussion is that it appears that the evidence that modern lexicographers would need to advance the explanations you are supporting is just not there, and never has been, even when these explanations were first published. I cannot understand why you are stubbornly ignoring that. You seem to be holding out some faint hope that new research will turn up new sources that justify your position. Good luck with that.But to reject this or that possibility in the absence of a solid basis in word history and/or etymology and/or language history would seem like poor method to my mind.
Yes indeed, but I have no particular attachment to one theory of provenance or the other, although I do have a great respect for the erudition of Dr Ashenden.Indeed. But this is my problem. It would appear that there is a solid basis for rejecting the 17th century explanations, repeated by Johnston, other lexicographers and other men of letter through to the mid-19th century. Modern sources do not entertain the earlier definitions. My reading of the discussion is that it appears that the evidence that modern lexicographers would need to advance the explanations you are supporting is just not there, and never has been, even when these explanations were first published. I cannot understand why you are stubbornly ignoring that. You seem to be holding out some faint hope that new research will turn up new sources that justify your position. Good luck with that.
OED deliberately quotes the late 17th Century explanation.Modern sources do not entertain the earlier definitions
That is clutching at straws. The quotations in any entry (here, for saunter) provides examples of the words usage over time. On the other hand, the etymology section of the entry for saunter makes no mention of this 17th Century reference as a possible explanation for the origin of the word. It doesn't even acknowledge that this is any longer of legitimate interest in the discussion on the etymology.OED deliberately quotes the late 17th Century explanation.
That's just not sound reasoning. While the OED might hold itself out to have some primacy wrt to the meanings of English words, linguists and lexicographers that have an interest in this pursue their studies across the globe. They have clearly rejected the 17th Century etymology.And it means that every theory except for the one that OED explicitly rejects ("the conjecture that it represents a med.L. type *exadventūrāre is phonologically inadmissible.") cannot be rejected a priori.
No it isn't.That is clutching at straws.
state :The quotations in any entry (here, for saunter)
That is an argument from authority fallacy, especially given that I have already quoted a 17th Century reference thereto.On the other hand, the etymology section of the entry for saunter makes no mention of this 17th Century reference as a possible explanation for the origin of the word.
So what ?It doesn't even acknowledge that this is any longer of legitimate interest in the discussion on the etymology.
Your own personal opinion does not amount to "clearly rejected".That's just not sound reasoning. While the OED might hold itself out to have some primacy wrt to the meanings of English words, linguists and lexicographers that have an interest in this pursue their studies across the globe. They have clearly rejected the 17th Century etymology.
The 17th Century quote in OED is just such fact.More, to suggest a theory, one would need to have some facts upon which it is built.
That is not true.The one citation that the OED acknowledges might have justified the etymology proposed by Ray and Johnson they go on to state 'is phonologically inadmissible'.
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